Someone I know recently said, “I think absentee voting is fraudulently exploited much more than early voting.”
There is zero real evidence of this. None. This often tossed out opinion is pure conjecture and fiction. My own state makes maximum use of this by all voting being done by mail, and it’s so heavily audited as to be over the top.
Even Texas, the King of Red States, audited their voting for overall fraud. It was something like 10-12 cases out of 48,000,000 votes cast, and that was something stupid like 50% were Republicans that voted in two areas from having two homes. I’ll grant that there was a 100x order of magnitude increase, right, in Texas? So lets say 1000-1200 cases out of 48,000,000 votes cast, which is an absurd thing to say, but fine: That’s 0.000025% of all votes in Texas being fraudulent. Let’s go down the rabbit hole in the 2012 Presidential elections…
- Obama won Florida 4,237,756 to 4,163,447. Let’s say that 0.000025% of his votes were fraudulent. That’s a grand total of 106 votes. Irrelevant. He still wins by 74,203 votes.
- Obama won Ohio 2,827,710 to 2,661,433. Let’s say that 0.000025% of his votes were fraudulent. That’s a grand total of 71 votes. Irrelevant. He still wins by 166,206 votes.
- Obama won Virginia 1,971,820 to 1,822,522. Let’s say that 0.000025% of his votes were fraudulent. That’s a grand total of 50 votes. Irrelevant. He still wins by 149,248 votes.
No other swing states were even vaguely close statistically, all winning by 2%+ in favor of Obama and one in favor of Romney.
If Romney legitimately won those three states — and not Obama — that means we needed voter fraud rates of at least 8%. You needed a grand total of perhaps 389,657 people engaging in active voter fraud in those states alone. The likelihood of that is as great as the likelihood of Obama having been genetically bred as a sleeper agent in Kenya in 1960 to infiltrate the US government 40 years later.